‘0’ is a number, it’s to describe there is no value.
So why is 0! = 1
.
Is there a (short) answer, or it’s just a rule to make it work?
edit: found this answer online… http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0factorial.html
‘0’ is a number, it’s to describe there is no value.
So why is 0! = 1
.
Is there a (short) answer, or it’s just a rule to make it work?
edit: found this answer online… http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.0factorial.html
Hi @FedPete,
That link you found I think answers it fairly well.
the way I look at it is the same as their first example of completing the pattern, so;
n! = (n - 1)! / (n - 1)
So for 0!, this gives us;
0! = 1! / 1 = 1
Thanks, it’s because of my no math brain. Trained to work from A to B to C …
It’s intriguing to learn, that sometimes reasoning backwards, can result in a solution, like starting value as in 0! = 1! / 1 = 1
Still having fun!
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